a nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client which of the following injection sites is the safest for this cl
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue to measure the client's vitals every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option B, which is to document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon. By documenting the client's condition and the communication with the surgeon, the nurse ensures legal protection and maintains continuity of care. This documentation serves as evidence of the actions taken, communication exchanged, and the rationale behind decisions made. Option A, notifying the nursing manager, may not be necessary at this stage unless there are specific institutional protocols requiring it. Administering additional fluids without further clarification may not be appropriate and could worsen the client's condition if not indicated. Calling the surgeon back immediately (option D) may disrupt the agreed-upon plan of action and fail to follow the surgeon's instructions of reassessment after an hour.

3. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's sleep and activity pattern. By assessing the client's patterns, the nurse can identify factors contributing to the sleep issues and tailor appropriate interventions. Choice B is incorrect because prescribing medication without a comprehensive assessment is not the initial step. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the client's symptoms are likely related to stress rather than a neurological disorder. Choice D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide holistic care. Therefore, option A is the best choice to address the client's sleep difficulties and headaches effectively.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

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