Nursing Elites

1. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

2. A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Alert the American Nurses Association.
• B. Fill out an incident report.
• C. Report the observations to the nurse manager on the unit.
• D. Leave the nurse alone to sleep.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.

3. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

• A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
• B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
• C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
• D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

4. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

5. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?

• A. Every 4 to 8 hours
• B. Every 12 to 24 hours
• C. Every 24 to 48 hours
• D. Every 72 to 96 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.

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