Nursing Elites

1. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

2. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

3. During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?

• A. Calf swelling
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Generalized rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.

4. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

5. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

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