Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

• A. Administer cardiac compressions
• B. Attach the AED pads to the client
• C. Check for a pulse
• D. Perform rescue breaths

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

2. When assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.
• B. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
• C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
• D. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility is to auscultate the entire lung region. This approach allows the nurse to identify any diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes that may indicate respiratory issues. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (Choice A) may not provide a comprehensive assessment of lung sounds. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (Choice C) may miss important findings in the lower lung fields. Assessing the patient at least every 4 hours (Choice D) is important for monitoring overall patient condition but does not specifically address the assessment of respiratory complications related to immobility.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Oral psyllium (Metamucil)
• B. Oral potassium supplement
• C. Parenteral half normal saline
• D. Parenteral albumin (Albuminar)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.

4. In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• B. Administer an antiemetic.
• C. Offer pain medication.
• D. Palpate the abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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