HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
- B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
- C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
- D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.
2. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
- B. Extinguish the fire
- C. Evacuate the client
- D. Confine the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.
3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
- B. Apply a warm compress.
- C. Administer analgesics.
- D. Discontinue the infusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.
4. The nurse is providing oral care to a patient. In which order will the nurse clean the oral cavity, starting with the first area?
- A. Roof of mouth, gums, and inside cheeks
- B. Chewing and inner tooth surfaces
- C. Outer tooth surfaces
- D. Tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for oral care is to clean the outer tooth surfaces first, followed by cleaning the inner tooth surfaces, then the roof of the mouth, gums, and inside cheeks with a toothette. Brushing the tongue should be the final step in the oral care procedure. Therefore, option C is the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order for providing oral care to a patient.
5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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