HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
- B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
- C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
- D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.
2. A client tells the nurse, “I have to check with my partner and see if they think I am ready to go home.” The nurse responds, “How do you feel about going home today?” Which clarifying technique is the nurse using to enhance communication with the client?
- A. Pacing
- B. Reflecting
- C. Paraphrasing
- D. Restating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reflecting is the correct answer as it involves echoing back the client’s feelings and concerns, helping them explore their thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse mirrors the client's statement to encourage the client to delve deeper into their emotions. Pacing involves matching the rate and flow of communication, paraphrasing is restating in different words, and restating is repeating what the client said without adding new information. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are not the appropriate clarifying technique demonstrated in the situation described.
3. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
4. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?
- A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
- B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
- C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
- D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
- D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.
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