Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.

2. After inserting an NG tube for a client, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?

• A. An x-ray shows the end of the tube above the pylorus.
• B. The tube is aspirated and contains clear gastric fluid.
• C. The tube is flushed with sterile water without resistance.
• D. The client does not cough or choke during tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct placement of an NG tube is confirmed by aspirating gastric fluid, which indicates that the tube is in the stomach. An x-ray can help visualize tube placement, but it alone does not confirm correct placement. Flushing the tube with sterile water without resistance indicates patency but not necessarily correct placement. The absence of coughing or choking does not confirm tube placement and is more related to the client's comfort during the procedure.

3. A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?

• A. Cold extremities
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take my pulse before taking the medication.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I should avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
• D. I should eat foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Eating foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia when taken with digoxin, indicating a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that demonstrate understanding of digoxin therapy. Taking the pulse, maintaining a consistent dosing schedule, and avoiding antacids to prevent interactions with digoxin are all appropriate client responses.

5. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

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