Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.

2. When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should:

• A. Grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression
• B. Check skin elasticity on the back of the hand
• C. Press on the skin over the abdomen
• D. Measure skin turgor on the lower leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression. This method is reliable for evaluating hydration status as it is less influenced by age-related skin changes or adipose tissue. Choice B, checking skin elasticity on the back of the hand, is not the preferred method for assessing skin turgor. Choice C, pressing on the skin over the abdomen, is not a standard location for assessing skin turgor. Choice D, measuring skin turgor on the lower leg, is not a recommended site for assessing skin turgor in clinical practice.

3. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

4. The healthcare provider is observing the way a patient walks. Which aspect is the healthcare provider assessing?

• A. Activity tolerance
• B. Body alignment
• C. Range of motion
• D. Gait

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the way a patient walks, the healthcare provider is evaluating the gait, which refers to a particular manner or style of walking. Body alignment pertains to the positioning of body parts in relation to one another, range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, and activity tolerance relates to the ability to endure physical activities. In this scenario, observing the patient's walking pattern specifically focuses on gait assessment.

5. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

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