HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?
- A. Normal breath sounds
- B. Adventitious breath sounds
- C. Absent breath sounds
- D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During auscultation of the chest, normal breath sounds are the expected findings in a client who is newly admitted without respiratory complaints. Normal breath sounds indicate proper airflow through the airways without any abnormalities. Adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) refer to abnormal lung sounds such as crackles or wheezes, which are indicative of underlying respiratory issues. Absent breath sounds (Choice C) suggest a lack of airflow to a particular lung area, which could be due to conditions like pneumothorax. Diminished breath sounds (Choice D) indicate reduced airflow or consolidation in a specific lung region, often seen in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia. Therefore, in a newly admitted client without respiratory complaints, the nurse should expect to hear normal breath sounds during auscultation.
2. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
- B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
- C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
- D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.
3. During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?
- A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
- B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
- C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
- D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.
4. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
5. Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
- A. Oil Retention
- B. Saline
- C. Soapy Water
- D. Hypertonic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.
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