Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use the spirometer every hour while awake.
• B. I will blow into the spirometer as hard as I can.
• C. I should feel dizzy when using the spirometer.
• D. I will only use the spirometer if I feel short of breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the spirometer every hour while awake is an effective way to prevent respiratory complications. This frequency helps in maintaining lung function and preventing atelectasis. Choice B is incorrect because blowing too hard into the spirometer can lead to hyperventilation and dizziness, making choice C also incorrect. Choice D is wrong as waiting to use the spirometer only when feeling short of breath may not provide optimal lung expansion and can lead to respiratory issues.

2. A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

• A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain
• C. Normal bowel sounds with cramping
• D. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
• B. Position the client in an upright sitting position.
• C. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
• D. Perform chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.

4. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

• A. Maintain the airway
• B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
• C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
• D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

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