Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

2. During an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash, which nursing action should receive the highest priority?

• A. Wearing gloves during the procedure
• B. Using a sterile solution
• C. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus
• D. Positioning the client's head properly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority during an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash is wearing gloves during the procedure. This action is crucial as it helps prevent contamination and protects both the client and the nurse. Using a sterile solution is important but not as critical as ensuring the nurse's safety by wearing gloves. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus and positioning the client's head properly are essential steps in eye irrigation, but they are not the highest priority in this scenario compared to ensuring infection control by wearing gloves.

3. A nurse is discussing the care of a group of clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the newly licensed nurse identify as experiencing chronic pain?

• A. A client who has a broken femur and reports hip pain.
• B. A client who has incisional pain 72 hours following pacemaker insertion.
• C. A client who has food poisoning and reports abdominal cramping.
• D. A client who has episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chronic pain is typically defined as pain lasting longer than 3-6 months or persisting after the expected time for tissue healing. Episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago fits the criteria for chronic pain. Option A describes acute pain related to a recent fracture. Option B describes acute postoperative pain. Option C describes acute pain associated with an acute condition (food poisoning). Therefore, the correct identification of a client experiencing chronic pain is the one with episodic back pain from a past injury, as it has lasted beyond the normal healing time.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

5. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

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