the nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthmwhich assessment finding would be most concerning
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HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

2. During preoperative education, a nurse should assess a client's readiness to learn before a mastectomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about the duration of the surgery indicates readiness to learn about the procedure. This question shows that the client is actively seeking information about the surgical process, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choices A, B, and D reflect concerns, specific requests, or statements unrelated to the learning process. They do not directly indicate readiness to absorb information about the upcoming mastectomy.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.

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