HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?
- A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
- B. Increasing the protein-binding response
- C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
- D. Decreasing the excretion of medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.
2. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to
- A. Approach the healthcare provider and staff nurse for a private meeting to address the situation.
- B. Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference.
- C. Notify other administrative personnel of a breach of professional conduct.
- D. Request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.
3. Before starting an intensive exercise program, what instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the client?
- A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program.
- B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more.
- C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class.
- D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.
4. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
- A. Limiting fluids
- B. Client-controlled analgesia
- C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
- D. Performing passive range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
5. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
- A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
- C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
- D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
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