Nursing Elites

1. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?

• A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
• B. Increasing the protein-binding response
• C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
• D. Decreasing the excretion of medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.

2. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.

3. A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self-care and appropriately adds which of the following statement?

• A. Insulin injections are not difficult to learn.
• B. Tell me what I can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.
• C. It’s important to learn self-care for future independence.
• D. You need to learn this for your health.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's fear and offers support to help them overcome the resistance to self-care. By expressing willingness to assist and asking for ways to help the client, the nurse encourages open communication and collaboration in finding solutions to the client's concerns. Choices A, C, and D, while valid statements, do not directly address the client's fear or resistance, which is crucial in promoting self-care adherence in this situation.

4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to assess a young adult client's musculoskeletal system as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly
• B. Exaggerated lumbar curvature
• C. Concave lumbar spine posteriorly
• D. Exaggerated thoracic curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a young adult's musculoskeletal system, the nurse should expect an exaggerated lumbar curvature (lordosis). This is a normal finding in young adults due to the natural curvature of the spine. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly (choice A) and concave lumbar spine posteriorly (choice C) are not typical findings as the spine should have normal curvatures. Exaggerated thoracic curvature (choice D) is also not a typical finding in young adults.

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