Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

2. After inserting an NG tube for a client, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?

• A. An x-ray shows the end of the tube above the pylorus.
• B. The tube is aspirated and contains clear gastric fluid.
• C. The tube is flushed with sterile water without resistance.
• D. The client does not cough or choke during tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct placement of an NG tube is confirmed by aspirating gastric fluid, which indicates that the tube is in the stomach. An x-ray can help visualize tube placement, but it alone does not confirm correct placement. Flushing the tube with sterile water without resistance indicates patency but not necessarily correct placement. The absence of coughing or choking does not confirm tube placement and is more related to the client's comfort during the procedure.

3. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

4. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for a client that results in a blood spill on her gloved hand. The client has no documented bloodstream infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene
• B. Continue with the procedure and clean hands later
• C. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and start over
• D. Use hand sanitizer and continue the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene. This is important to prevent potential contamination and maintain infection control practices. Option B is incorrect because cleaning hands later may lead to the spread of potential contaminants. Option C is unnecessary as starting over is not required if proper hand hygiene is performed. Option D is not sufficient in ensuring proper hygiene after a blood spill, as hand sanitizer may not effectively remove all contaminants.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care to prevent joint contractures?

• A. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises.
• B. Use pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position.
• C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position is crucial in preventing joint contractures. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment of the joints and reduces the risk of contractures by preventing prolonged positioning that can lead to muscle shortening. Encouraging the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not be the most important intervention to prevent joint contractures. Placing the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day (Choice C) can be helpful for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing joint contractures. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side (Choice D) can aid in maintaining joint flexibility but may not be as crucial as using pillows to prevent joint contractures.

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