Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

3. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
• B. Check the client’s weight daily.
• C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.

4. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

5. During a family assessment, a nurse is interviewing a family composed of a husband, a wife, and three children. One child is biological from this marriage, and the other two are from the wife’s previous marriage. How should the nurse identify this family form?

• A. Extended
• B. Blended
• C. Nuclear
• D. Alternative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blended.' This family is considered a blended family because it consists of children from previous marriages, along with the biological child of the current marriage. Choice A ('Extended') refers to a family that includes relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as grandparents or aunts/uncles. Choice C ('Nuclear') typically consists of a husband, wife, and their biological children only. Choice D ('Alternative') does not accurately describe the family structure presented in the scenario.

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