Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

2. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

3. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

4. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

5. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
• B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

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