Nursing Elites

1. A client who is lactating is being taught about taking medications by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to minimize the entry of medication into breast milk?

• A. Drink 8 oz of water with each dose of medication.
• B. Use medications that have a short half-life.
• C. Take each dose right after breastfeeding.
• D. Pump breast milk and discard it prior to feeding the newborn.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking medications immediately after breastfeeding helps minimize the amount of medication that enters breast milk. By doing so, there is a longer interval between the medication intake and the next breastfeeding session, reducing the concentration of the medication in breast milk. Options A and B are incorrect as drinking water with medication or using medications with a short half-life do not directly minimize the entry of medication into breast milk. Option D is unnecessary and wasteful as pumping and discarding breast milk before feeding is not as effective as timing medication intake with breastfeeding to reduce medication transfer into breast milk.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

4. The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
• B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
• C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
• D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

Similar Questions