Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when the nurse requests the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
• B. Don't worry, it’s just for the surgery.
• C. You need to follow the instructions.
• D. The dentures need to be removed for a reason.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to provide a clear rationale for the request, as stated in option D. By explaining the purpose behind removing the dentures, the nurse helps the client understand the necessity, which can reduce agitation and promote cooperation. Option A demonstrates empathy by addressing the client's potential concern about being seen without dentures but lacks a direct explanation. Option B dismisses the client's feelings with a casual statement that may not address the underlying issue. Option C is authoritarian and lacks empathy, potentially escalating the client's agitation.

2. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?

• A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
• B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
• C. The force opposing movement direction
• D. The ability to move freely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.

3. A client is on bed rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours.
• B. Instruct the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours.
• C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Reposition the client every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent complications associated with prolonged bed rest, encouraging the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours is essential. These exercises help promote circulation and prevent blood clots. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours is beneficial for respiratory function, but it is not as critical as antiembolic exercises. Repositioning the client every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and maintain skin integrity. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended, as hydration is important for overall health and well-being, especially for clients on bed rest.

4. A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?

• A. A client who has a prescription for a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a routine physical examination.
• C. A client who is undergoing a minor surgical procedure without anesthesia.
• D. A client who has been prescribed a new medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client’s informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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