HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when the nurse requests the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
- B. Don't worry, it’s just for the surgery.
- C. You need to follow the instructions.
- D. The dentures need to be removed for a reason.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to provide a clear rationale for the request, as stated in option D. By explaining the purpose behind removing the dentures, the nurse helps the client understand the necessity, which can reduce agitation and promote cooperation. Option A demonstrates empathy by addressing the client's potential concern about being seen without dentures but lacks a direct explanation. Option B dismisses the client's feelings with a casual statement that may not address the underlying issue. Option C is authoritarian and lacks empathy, potentially escalating the client's agitation.
2. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
3. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
- A. Pericardial friction rub
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Aortic regurgitation
- D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.
4. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?
- A. Every 4 to 8 hours
- B. Every 12 to 24 hours
- C. Every 24 to 48 hours
- D. Every 72 to 96 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
- B. Dark-colored urine
- C. Abdominal distention
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.
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