Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Pain in the affected leg
• B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Swelling in the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm before starting IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the provider implement to prevent infection?

• A. Thread the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site
• B. Shave excess hair from around the insertion site
• C. Cleanse the site with hydrogen peroxide before IV catheter insertion
• D. Palpate the site carefully just before inserting the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inserting the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter. This technique helps prevent introducing microbes into the bloodstream during the catheter insertion process. Shaving excess hair is unnecessary and can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection. Cleansing the site with hydrogen peroxide is outdated as it can cause tissue damage and delay wound healing. Palpating the site just before insertion can introduce bacteria from the skin surface into the insertion site, increasing the risk of infection.

5. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

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