a client with a diagnosis of guillain barre syndrome is in a non responsive state yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent what should
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.

2. A client will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ensuring the oxygen equipment's wires and cables are in good working order is crucial to prevent sparks in an oxygen-rich environment, which could lead to a fire. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because smoking near an oxygen tank, using a cotton blanket near oxygen (as cotton is less likely to generate static electricity than wool), and laying the oxygen tank down on the floor pose significant safety risks and are not appropriate practices for managing oxygen therapy at home.

3. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

4. A client is scheduled for hip surgery in an hour. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse’s priority is to ensure that the client signs the consent form before the hip surgery. This is crucial as it ensures that the client has provided informed consent for the procedure. Locking valuables, verifying lab values, and administering sedatives are important tasks but ensuring consent takes precedence as it directly impacts the client’s right to make decisions about their care.

5. When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is characterized by a scratching sound that occurs during both systole and diastole. It becomes more distinct when the client is sitting up and leaning forward. This indicates an inflammation of the pericardial sac rubbing against the layers of the heart. Heart murmurs (choice B) are abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, not by friction like in a pericardial rub. S3 and S4 heart sounds (choices C and D) are additional heart sounds related to abnormal ventricular filling, not to pericardial friction rubs.

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