Nursing Elites

1. At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The LPN tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence?

• A. It is normal to feel angry and depressed, but the sooner you deal with this surgery, the better you will feel.
• B. Looking at your incision can be frightening, but facing this fear is a necessary part of your recovery.
• C. It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.
• D. I will ask a woman who has had a mastectomy to come by and share her experiences with you.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, it's essential to acknowledge and respect the client's feelings and choices. Choice C is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's decision not to discuss the surgery while offering support and understanding. Giving the client space and letting them know you will be available when they are ready shows empathy and fosters trust. Choices A and B do not respect the client's autonomy and may come across as dismissive or pressuring. Choice D assumes the client needs advice from someone who has had a similar experience without considering the client's current emotional state and preferences.

2. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. Albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. WBC count of 6,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

3. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

• A. Administer cardiac compressions
• B. Attach the AED pads to the client
• C. Check for a pulse
• D. Perform rescue breaths

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

4. A client requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

• A. Help the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube.
• B. Insert the tube without asking the client to swallow.
• C. Advance the tube continuously without pausing.
• D. Use a large-bore tube for insertion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when inserting an NG tube is to help the client take sips of water. This helps facilitate the insertion of the tube by promoting swallowing and passage through the esophagus. Asking the client to swallow assists in guiding the tube into the stomach. Inserting the tube without asking the client to swallow may lead to incorrect placement or discomfort. Advancing the tube continuously without pausing can cause the tube to coil in the esophagus, leading to complications. Using a large-bore tube for insertion is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or discomfort for the client.

5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

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