Nursing Elites

1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

2. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care to prevent joint contractures?

• A. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises.
• B. Use pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position.
• C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position is crucial in preventing joint contractures. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment of the joints and reduces the risk of contractures by preventing prolonged positioning that can lead to muscle shortening. Encouraging the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not be the most important intervention to prevent joint contractures. Placing the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day (Choice C) can be helpful for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing joint contractures. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side (Choice D) can aid in maintaining joint flexibility but may not be as crucial as using pillows to prevent joint contractures.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Protective environment
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. When a client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, contact precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection through direct contact. Protective environment precautions are used for immunocompromised clients, airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, and droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets. In this case, the focus is on preventing direct contact transmission, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice. Protective environment, airborne, and droplet precautions are not indicated in this scenario because the primary concern is the direct contact transmission of pathogens through the wound drainage.

5. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
• B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
• C. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
• D. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

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