the nurse admits a 7 year old to the emergency room after a leg injury the x rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis the parents ask what will b
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

3. An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is to ensure the client has a clear airway to facilitate breathing. After verifying unresponsiveness and calling for help, the nurse should open the client's airway to aid in maintaining ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse (Choice A) may be important but comes after ensuring a clear airway. Delivering abdominal thrusts (Choice B) is indicated for choking, not for an unresponsive client. Giving rescue breaths (Choice C) is also important but only after the airway has been established.

4. A client expresses pain during dressing changes postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to address the client's immediate physiological need for comfort and pain relief during the dressing change. Administering pain medication 45 minutes before the procedure can help alleviate the pain experienced by the client. Encouraging relaxation techniques (choice A) is beneficial but may not provide sufficient pain relief during the dressing change. Educating about the importance of pain management (choice B) is relevant but does not address the immediate need for pain relief. Assisting the client to a comfortable position (choice C) is helpful but does not directly address the client's pain concern during the dressing change. Administering pain medication is the most direct and effective intervention to ensure optimal client comfort and compliance with necessary procedures.

5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

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