HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
- B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
- C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
- D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.
2. A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about the administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate no more than 6 L/min
- B. Administer oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation
- C. Use a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients
- D. Adjust oxygen flow based on client comfort
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Regulating oxygen flow at no more than 6 L/min via nasal cannula is a safe practice to prevent potential complications such as oxygen toxicity. Option B suggesting administering oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation is incorrect as it can lead to adverse effects. Option C is incorrect because using a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients is not necessary and should be based on individual client needs. Option D is incorrect as adjusting oxygen flow solely based on client comfort without considering the prescribed flow rate can compromise the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.
3. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.
5. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
- C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
- D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
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