HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. What intervention should be taken to minimize the risk for injury in a client with dementia?
- A. Use a bed exit alarm system.
- B. Place the client in restraints for safety.
- C. Ensure the client has frequent visitors to reduce isolation.
- D. Keep the client's room dark and quiet at night.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to minimize the risk for injury in a client with dementia is to use a bed exit alarm system. Bed exit alarms are effective tools to alert healthcare providers when a client attempts to get out of bed, helping prevent falls and injuries. Placing the client in restraints (Choice B) is not the preferred method as it can lead to physical and psychological harm, restrict mobility, and increase agitation. While social interaction is important for clients with dementia, ensuring frequent visitors (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing physical injuries. Keeping the client's room dark and quiet at night (Choice D) may be soothing for some clients but does not directly address the risk for injury associated with dementia.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
- D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or other medications that increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that show understanding of warfarin therapy, such as the importance of avoiding foods high in vitamin K, taking medication consistently, and using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
3. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?
- A. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
- B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
- C. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day.
- D. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The goal 'The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge' is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, achievable, and individualized. This goal sets a clear target for the patient's mobility progress post-surgery. Choice A is too vague and does not provide a specific target distance or method of ambulation. Choice C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the patient's progress. Choice D lacks specificity in terms of distance or assistance required, making it less measurable and individualized compared to Choice B.
4. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
5. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?
- A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
- B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
- C. The force opposing movement direction
- D. The ability to move freely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.
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