Nursing Elites

1. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
• B. Give information about advance directives
• C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
• D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

3. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

• A. BP 142/88 mmHg
• B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
• C. Radial pulse volume is +3
• D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema, indicated by 2+ edema of fingers and hands, can impair blood flow and peripheral perfusion, leading to reduced oxygen saturation readings on a pulse oximeter. High blood pressure (choice A) would not directly affect oxygen saturation readings. Radial pulse volume (choice C) and capillary refill time (choice D) are more related to assessing circulation rather than contributing significantly to oxygen saturation readings.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
• B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
• C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.

5. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?

• A. To reduce strain on the incision
• B. To promote drainage of the wound
• C. To provide stimulation for the client
• D. To reduce edema at the operative site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.

Similar Questions