Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?

• A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
• B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
• C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
• D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

2. A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?

• A. Offer to assist the client who needs the bedpan.
• B. Administer the injection the other nurse prepared.
• C. Prepare another syringe and administer the injection.
• D. Tell the client who needs the bedpan to wait while the nurse gives someone else medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and census overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Census overdue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high fever is a significant indicator of infection or other serious conditions, making it the priority finding. Elevated temperature indicates an immediate concern for infection, which can quickly escalate and lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. While heart rate, abdominal tenderness, and census overdue are important aspects to consider in the client's care, addressing the fever takes precedence due to its potential severity and implications for the client's health.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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