Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Wear an N95 respirator when giving direct care to the client.
• B. Place the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow.
• C. Ensure the client's room has at least six air exchanges per hour.
• D. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside their room if there is construction in the area.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a protective environment for a client with an allogeneic stem cell transplant, the nurse needs to wear an N95 respirator when providing direct care to the client. This precaution is essential to protect the client, whose immune system is compromised after the transplant, from exposure to potential pathogens. Placing the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow (choice B) is more appropriate for clients with airborne infections. Ensuring the client's room has sufficient air exchanges (choice C) is important for maintaining air quality but is not the primary precaution for protecting an immunocompromised client. Making the client wear a mask when outside the room due to construction (choice D) focuses on external factors and does not directly address the risk of infection during direct care.

2. In order to assist an older diabetic patient to engage in moderate daily exercise, which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Determine what type of activities the patient enjoys.
• B. Remind the patient that exercise will improve self-esteem.
• C. Teach the patient about the effects of exercise on glucose levels.
• D. Give the patient a list of activities that are moderate in intensity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine what type of activities the patient enjoys. This approach is crucial as it helps in personalizing the exercise plan to the patient's preferences, making it more likely for them to adhere to it. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on self-esteem may not directly motivate the patient to engage in exercise. Choice C, although important, may not be the initial step as understanding the patient's preferences comes first. Choice D limits the patient's autonomy by not involving them in the decision-making process.

3. A nurse manager who tells the staff to 'come to me with any problem' but then keeps the office door closed is using what type of communication?

• A. Intrasender conflict
• B. Diagonal communication
• C. Metacommunication
• D. Upward communication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intrasender conflict. Intrasender conflict happens when there is a discrepancy between verbal and nonverbal communication. In this scenario, the nurse manager's verbal message encourages staff to communicate openly, but the closed office door sends a conflicting nonverbal message, creating intrasender conflict. Metacommunication involves nonverbal behaviors like gestures or facial expressions that support or contradict verbal communication. Upward communication refers to the flow of information from staff to management or lower to upper management. Diagonal communication involves communication between individuals or departments at different hierarchical levels.

4. When utilizing an internal float pool, which of the following pools is most efficient?

• A. Centralized
• B. Flexible
• C. Mixed
• D. Decentralized

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Centralization is the most efficient option when utilizing an internal float pool because it allows for a pool of nurses to be used anywhere in the hospital. In centralized pools, staff members are not limited to working for only one nurse manager or on only one unit, unlike in decentralized pools. Flexible and mixed pools may offer some advantages, but in terms of efficiency and utilization of resources, centralized pools are the most effective choice.

5. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

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