Nursing Elites

1. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?

• A. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain.
• B. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
• C. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.
• D. Amitriptyline improves sleep and reduces awareness of nighttime pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.

2. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

• A. Blood pressure screening
• B. Administering medications
• C. Developing a care plan
• D. Providing rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

3. What is the main purpose of a utilization review?

• A. Evaluate patient outcomes
• B. Ensure compliance with regulations
• C. Reduce hospital readmissions
• D. Assess financial impact

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main purpose of a utilization review is to evaluate patient outcomes and ensure that patients receive appropriate care based on medical necessity and quality standards. While ensuring compliance with regulations, reducing hospital readmissions, and assessing financial impact are important aspects of healthcare management, the primary goal of utilization review is to focus on the quality and effectiveness of patient care.

4. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

5. An RN cared for a state senator during the day shift. Later that day he was having dinner with friends when the news mentioned the senator had been hospitalized. The RN�s friends asked if he knew what was wrong with the senator. Which ethical principle should the RN consider when replying?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Confidentiality
• C. Veracity
• D. Accountability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The principle of confidentiality requires nurses to hold healthcare information and anything patients tell them in the strictest confidence.

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