Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a potential benefit of social media?

• A. Sharing the fun side of nursing by posting a video of nurses singing and dancing in the hallways of the hospital while on duty
• B. Connecting with clients to keep up with their health status
• C. Connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors
• D. Sharing pictures of interesting clinical experiences with friends

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors is a significant benefit of social media. It allows for the dissemination of valuable health information, promoting healthy habits, and raising awareness about important health issues. Choices A, B, and D are not as impactful as choice C in terms of promoting public health and healthy behaviors. Choice A focuses more on entertainment rather than health promotion, choice B is specific to client connections rather than public health initiatives, and choice D is more about sharing experiences rather than encouraging healthy behaviors.

2. Which of the following strategies is most effective for reducing medication errors on a nursing unit?

• A. Increasing the nurse-to-patient ratio
• B. Providing ongoing education on safe medication practices
• C. Using barcoding technology for medication administration
• D. Increasing the use of PRN medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective strategy for reducing medication errors on a nursing unit is using barcoding technology for medication administration. Barcoding technology helps to ensure the right medication is given to the right patient in the right dose at the right time. Increasing the nurse-to-patient ratio (choice A) may help in preventing errors due to workload, but it may not address the root cause of medication errors. Providing ongoing education (choice B) is important but may not be as effective as implementing technology to directly prevent errors during administration. Increasing the use of PRN medications (choice D) can actually increase the risk of errors if not carefully monitored and controlled.

3. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

4. During a performance appraisal, how should the manager best provide constructive feedback to an employee?

• A. Focus only on the negative aspects of performance
• B. Provide general comments without specifics
• C. Discuss specific examples of strengths and areas for improvement
• D. Delay feedback until the next appraisal period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a performance appraisal, the best approach to provide constructive feedback is by discussing specific examples of strengths and areas for improvement. This method allows the employee to understand what they are excelling at and where they need to focus on development. By highlighting both aspects, the employee can work on enhancing their performance effectively. Option A is incorrect because solely focusing on the negative aspects can demotivate the employee and hinder their growth. Option B is incorrect as providing general comments without specifics does not offer clear guidance for improvement. Option D is also incorrect as delaying feedback can prevent timely corrective actions and hinder performance progress.

5. Which of the following indicators is viewed as important by the nurse manager in relation to a performance model?

• A. Patient outcomes
• B. Rapport with staff
• C. Daily job performance
• D. Flexibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient outcomes. In a performance model, one of the key indicators that a nurse manager would focus on is patient outcomes. Patient outcomes are a direct reflection of the quality of care provided by the staff, making it a crucial aspect of evaluating performance. Choice B, rapport with staff, though important for team dynamics, is not directly related to a performance model that primarily assesses job performance. Choice C, daily job performance, is relevant but more of an outcome rather than an indicator itself. Choice D, flexibility, is a valuable trait but not specifically highlighted in the context of a performance model.

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