Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary goal of a clinical nurse leader (CNL)?

• A. To manage the nursing staff
• B. To coordinate patient care
• C. To improve patient outcomes
• D. To implement evidence-based practices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of a clinical nurse leader (CNL) is to improve patient outcomes by overseeing patient care delivery, coordinating with healthcare team members, and ensuring quality care. While managing nursing staff (choice A) and implementing evidence-based practices (choice D) are important aspects of a CNL's role, the ultimate focus is on enhancing patient outcomes. Coordinating patient care (choice B) is part of the CNL's responsibilities but not the primary goal.

2. A nurse supervisor is planning an educational session for her staff regarding improving teamwork among different generations. Which of the following recommendations will reduce potential generational conflicts?

• A. Involve only millennials in technology decisions.
• B. Focus on the team as a whole, rather than individual generations.
• C. Involve only the baby boomers in technology decisions.
• D. Practice active and assertive communication techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active and assertive communication will assist each generation to value the others� skills and perspectives.

3. One of the perceptions of turnover is:

• A. Poor management
• B. Rejection of the job
• C. Loss of poor performers
• D. Poor job atmosphere

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rejection of the job.' According to Steers and Stone, turnover can be perceived by coworkers as a rejection of the job. Choice A, 'Poor management,' is incorrect because turnover perception is more related to individual feelings about the job rather than management. Choice C, 'Loss of poor performers,' is incorrect as it focuses on the outcome of turnover rather than the perception. Choice D, 'Poor job atmosphere,' is incorrect as it describes a cause of turnover rather than a perception.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diarrhea due to shigella. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement for this client?

• A. Have the client wear a mask when receiving visitors.
• B. Limit the client's time with visitors to no more than 30 minutes per day.
• C. Assign the client to a room with negative-pressure airflow exchange.
• D. Wear a gown when caring for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting the client's time with visitors helps prevent the spread of shigella infection to others. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so minimizing contact time reduces the risk of transmission. Choice A is incorrect as there is no need for the client to wear a mask in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as negative-pressure airflow exchange rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a gown is not the primary precaution needed for shigella infection.

5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

• A. Blood pressure screening
• B. Administering medications
• C. Developing a care plan
• D. Providing rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

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