Nursing Elites

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Ketoacidosis
• D. Dawn phenomenon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.

3. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?

• A. To reduce strain on the incision
• B. To promote drainage of the wound
• C. To provide stimulation for the client
• D. To reduce edema at the operative site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.

4. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

5. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

Similar Questions