Nursing Elites

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

3. A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?

• A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
• B. I should inspect my skin daily.
• C. The brace will be worn day and night.
• D. I can take it off when I shower.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to the client to help manage their condition?

• A. Increase fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Practice pursed-lip breathing to improve oxygenation.
• C. Avoid physical activity to prevent dyspnea.
• D. Use a peak flow meter to monitor lung function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Practicing pursed-lip breathing is an essential technique to help manage COPD as it can improve oxygenation by promoting better gas exchange. This technique helps to keep the airways open longer during exhalation, preventing air trapping and improving breathing efficiency. Increasing fluid intake can help thin secretions, which is beneficial, but it is not the primary instruction for managing COPD. Avoiding physical activity is not recommended as it can lead to deconditioning and worsen dyspnea in COPD patients. Using a peak flow meter is more commonly associated with monitoring asthma rather than COPD, so it is not the most relevant instruction for managing COPD.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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