uap has lowered the head of the bed to change the lines for a client who is bedless which observationmost immediate intervention by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

3. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

4. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

5. A nurse in a long-term care facility is admitting a client who is incontinent and smells strongly of urine. His partner, who has been caring for him at home, is embarrassed and apologizes for the smell. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: "I understand that this is challenging; let’s work together to ensure comfort." This response acknowledges the difficulty the partner is facing, shows empathy, and offers to collaborate in providing care. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly address the partner's feelings of embarrassment or offer support. Choice B, while true, does not address the partner's emotional state and may come across as directive rather than supportive. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses solely on the smell without addressing the partner's emotions or offering assistance in managing the situation with empathy.

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