HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago has many questions about this condition. What area is a priority for the nurse to discuss at this time?
- A. Daily needs and concerns
- B. The overview of cardiac rehabilitation
- C. Medication and diet guidelines
- D. Activity and rest guidelines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Addressing the client's daily needs and concerns is a priority to help alleviate anxiety and ensure the client understands the immediate post-MI care. Daily needs and concerns encompass basic aspects like comfort, hygiene, emotional support, and overall well-being, which are crucial in the early recovery phase post-MI. Discussing cardiac rehabilitation, medication and diet guidelines, or activity and rest guidelines are important topics but addressing immediate personal needs and concerns takes precedence to establish a supportive and informative care environment.
2. A healthcare professional is planning to perform ear irrigation on an adult client with impacted cerumen. Which of the following should the professional plan to take?
- A. Wearing sterile gloves while performing irrigation
- B. Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation
- C. Using cool fluid to irrigate the ear canal
- D. Pulling the pinna downward during irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation is crucial as it helps facilitate drainage of the dislodged cerumen and any remaining irrigation solution. This position allows gravity to assist in the removal of the loosened debris. Wearing sterile gloves is a standard precaution in healthcare procedures to prevent infection but is not specific to ear irrigation. Using body-temperature water or a solution at a slightly warmer temperature is recommended to prevent vertigo and discomfort, so using cool fluid is incorrect. Pulling the pinna upward and backward, not downward, straightens the ear canal for adults to facilitate the irrigation process, making choice D incorrect.
3. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Overdue menses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
4. Postoperatively, signs of hemorrhagic shock are observed. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who instructs to continue monitoring vitals every 15 minutes and report back in one hour. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Notify the nurse manager
- B. Continue monitoring as instructed
- C. Administer IV fluids as per protocol
- D. Prepare for immediate transfer to the ICU
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to continue monitoring the patient as instructed. This is crucial to assess the patient's condition and response to initial interventions. Administering IV fluids or preparing for transfer to the ICU should only be done based on further assessment or explicit orders from the healthcare provider. Notifying the nurse manager, as suggested in choice A, without further assessment or intervention could delay immediate patient care and management.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.
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