Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?

• A. Assess the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• D. Have special times for inspection to not interrupt routine care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

3. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
• B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
• C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
• D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.

4. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a pad under the client’s head
• B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
• C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
• D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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