Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?

• A. Assess the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• D. Have special times for inspection to not interrupt routine care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Wheezing
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Cough with sputum production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

3. A client is 24 hours postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. The client is tolerating clear liquids well, has active bowel sounds, and is expressing a desire for “real food.” The nurse tells the client, “I will call the surgeon and ask for a change in diet.” The surgeon hears the nurse’s report and prescribes a full liquid diet. The nurse used which of the following levels of critical thinking?

• A. Basic
• B. Commitment
• C. Complex
• D. Integrity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse demonstrated complex critical thinking by assessing the client's condition, evaluating the need for a change, and making a recommendation to the surgeon. In this scenario, the nurse went beyond simply following instructions or making routine decisions (basic critical thinking). There was a depth of analysis and decision-making involved, showing a higher level of critical thinking than basic or commitment levels. Integrity is about adherence to ethical principles and honesty, not directly related to the critical thinking process.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.

5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

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