Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action

• A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
• B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
• C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
• D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seclusion should only be used when necessary and with proper documentation; otherwise, it may be considered unlawful. Placing a client in seclusion without a clear indication or proper documentation could lead to legal ramifications, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because assault and battery do not apply in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as there is no mention of the client posing an imminent threat due to a history of violence. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should not be used solely to maintain the therapeutic milieu but rather for the safety of the client and others.

2. During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Murmur
• C. S1 and S2
• D. Bruit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.

3. Upon admission to the hospital, a client presents with decreased circulation in the left leg. What is the most important initial nursing action during the assessment?

• A. Assess the client's mobility
• B. Evaluate the pedal pulses
• C. Monitor skin temperature
• D. Check for swelling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is admitted with decreased circulation in the left leg, the most critical initial nursing action is to evaluate the pedal pulses. Pedal pulses provide essential information about the circulation status in the affected leg. Assessing the client's mobility (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as evaluating pedal pulses in this scenario. Monitoring skin temperature (Choice C) and checking for swelling (Choice D) are also relevant, but they are secondary to evaluating pedal pulses since the latter directly assesses the circulation in the affected limb.

4. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

5. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

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