a client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94 to 88 while ambulating based on these findings which intervention should the lpnlv
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

2. While caring for an older adult client who is violent and attempting to disconnect her IV lines, the provider prescribes soft wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take while the client is in restraints?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing restraints one at a time is the correct action to take when caring for a client in soft wrist restraints. This approach ensures safety and comfort while still maintaining the necessary restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as securing the restraints tightly can lead to circulatory issues and discomfort. Choice C of checking the restraints every hour is a reasonable action, but it is not the priority when compared to the correct choice of removing the restraints one at a time. Choice D of using leather restraints for additional security is unnecessary and may be more restrictive and uncomfortable for the client.

3. A nurse on a surgical unit is receiving a client who had abdominal surgery from the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the airway first. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation post-surgery. Assessing the airway takes precedence over other assessments as a compromised airway can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress. Checking blood pressure, the surgical site, or level of consciousness are important but are secondary to ensuring the airway is clear and the client can breathe effectively.

4. A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when transferring a postoperative client from the gurney to the bed is to lock the wheels on both the bed and the gurney. Locking the wheels ensures stability and prevents accidents during the transfer. Adjusting the bed height may be necessary for comfort but is not the primary concern during the transfer process. Using a slide sheet may be helpful in repositioning the client once on the bed but is not essential for the initial transfer. Asking for assistance from another nurse is always a good practice, but the immediate action to ensure safety during the transfer is to lock the wheels.

5. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

Similar Questions

A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?
The nurse is caring for an adult who has fluid volume excess. When weighing the client, the nurse should:
What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?
A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses