HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
- A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
- C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
- D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
2. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:
- A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
- B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
- C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
- D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.
3. While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
- A. Remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene
- B. Change gloves and continue
- C. Wash hands immediately without removing gloves
- D. Report the incident to the supervisor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After completing the task, the nurse should remove the gloves carefully and follow with hand hygiene. This practice is crucial to prevent the transmission of any potential pathogens, maintain cleanliness, and reduce the risk of infection. Changing gloves and continuing without proper hand hygiene may lead to contamination. Washing hands immediately without removing gloves is not recommended as it does not ensure thorough hand hygiene. Reporting the incident to the supervisor should be done if there are specific protocols in place for such incidents, but immediate hand hygiene is the priority in this scenario to ensure patient and nurse safety.
4. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
5. When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?
- A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s medical record.
- B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
- C. The provider can clarify the prescription when they sign the health record.
- D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client’s medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.
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