Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.

2. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
• C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• D. Loose stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

3. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

4. In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Ascites
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.

5. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

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