HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.
2. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Menses overdue
- C. Soft tender abdomen
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.
4. When assessing a client reporting increased pain after physical therapy, which question should the nurse ask to evaluate the quality of the pain?
- A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
- B. Does the pain radiate to other areas?
- C. Does the pain increase with movement?
- D. Can you rate your pain on a scale of 1 to 10?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing the quality of a client's pain is whether the pain is sharp or dull. This helps in understanding the characteristics of the pain being experienced. Choice B, asking if the pain radiates to other areas, focuses more on pain distribution rather than quality. Choice C, inquiring if the pain increases with movement, pertains to aggravating factors rather than pain quality. Choice D, requesting the client to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, is related to pain intensity rather than quality.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.
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