HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
3. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
4. A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
- A. Assessment
- B. Situation
- C. Background
- D. Recommendation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Positive bowel sounds
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Elevated temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.
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