Nursing Elites

1. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

2. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:

• A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
• B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
• C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
• D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.

3. A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Administer the PRN dose of Albuterol
• C. Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
• D. Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.

4. A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
• B. Place the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients.
• C. Allow the client to visit public areas freely.
• D. Ensure the client does not need any special precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

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