HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?
- A. Administer the enema solution.
- B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
- C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
- D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
- D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or other medications that increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that show understanding of warfarin therapy, such as the importance of avoiding foods high in vitamin K, taking medication consistently, and using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
- A. Reflex incontinence
- B. Allergic to shellfish
- C. Claustrophobia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.
4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
5. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Overdue menses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
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