Nursing Elites

1. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

2. A client had a mastectomy 6 months ago and expresses a decreased desire for sexual relations, stating “My body is so different now.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Really, you look just fine to me. There’s no need to feel undesirable.”
• B. “I’m interested in finding out more about how your body feels to you.”
• C. “Consider an afternoon at a spa; a facial will make you feel more attractive.”
• D. “It’s still too soon to expect to feel normal. Give it a little more time.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate response is to reflect on the client’s feelings and explore their experience. Choice A may unintentionally dismiss the client's concerns by not addressing their emotional needs. Choice C suggests a spa treatment as a solution without addressing the underlying emotional issues. Choice D implies that the client's feelings will resolve with time, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's current emotional state.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

4. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?

• A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
• B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
• C. The client has no signs of infection.
• D. The client is able to void independently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

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