Nursing Elites

1. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

2. A nurse educator is presenting a module on basic first aid for newly licensed home health nurses. The client who has heat stroke will have which of the following?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Clammy skin
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by elevated body temperature, which can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and vasodilation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and clammy skin are not typical findings in heat stroke. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is also not a common feature of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most likely cardiovascular manifestation seen in a client with heat stroke.

3. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

• A. 0.75 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 0.8 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

4. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

5. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

Similar Questions