HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?
- A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
- B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
- C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
- D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.
2. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.
3. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
- B. The client picks up the walker with each step
- C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
- D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
4. A visitor comes to the nursing station and tells the nurse that a client and his relative had a fight, and that the client is now lying unconscious on the floor. What is the most important action the LPN/LVN needs to take?
- A. Ask the client if he is okay.
- B. Call security from the room.
- C. Find out if there is anyone else in the room.
- D. Ask security to make sure the room is safe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most critical action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to ask security to ensure the room is safe. This step is crucial to prevent any further harm to the unconscious client or others. While it is important to assess the client's condition, ensuring safety takes precedence. Calling security from the room may expose the LPN/LVN to potential danger without confirming the safety of the environment first. Finding out if anyone else is in the room can wait until safety is established to avoid unnecessary risks.
5. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
- A. During the admission process.
- B. After the client stabilizes.
- C. Only after the client requests it.
- D. At the time of discharge.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.
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