Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

2. A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type of precautions is the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Compromised host precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when performing postmortem care on a client with MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve using barriers like gloves and gowns to limit direct contact with the deceased individual's body fluids and tissues. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that are transmitted through the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for pathogens that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a recognized standard precaution type and are not applicable in this scenario.

3. A nurse is preparing to check a client's blood pressure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa.
• B. Use a cuff with a width that is about 60% of the client's arm circumference.
• C. Have the client sit with their arm resting at the level of their heart.
• D. Release the pressure on the client's arm at a rate of 5 to 6 mm per second.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when checking a client's blood pressure is to apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa. Placing the cuff above this area allows for an accurate measurement of blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because the cuff width should be approximately 40% of the arm circumference, not 60%. Choice C is incorrect as the client's arm should rest at heart level, not above it, to ensure an accurate reading. Choice D is incorrect as the pressure on the client's arm should be released at a rate of 2 to 3 mm per second, not 5 to 6 mm per second.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to assess the abdomen of a client who reports feeling bloated for several weeks. Which of the following methods of assessment should the healthcare professional use first?

• A. Inspection
• B. Palpation
• C. Auscultation
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspection is the initial step in abdominal assessment as it allows the healthcare professional to visually observe any abnormalities or signs of bloating. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are subsequent assessment techniques that follow inspection. Palpation involves feeling for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement; auscultation is listening for bowel sounds; and percussion is used to assess the density of underlying tissues or detect the presence of fluid or air in the abdomen. In the context of a client reporting bloating, the first step should be visual inspection to gather initial information. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion come after inspection to provide a more comprehensive assessment.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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