Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

2. A client is having difficulty breathing while laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

• A. Suction the client's airway
• B. Administer a bronchodilator
• C. Increase the humidity in the client's room
• D. Assist the client to an upright position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to an upright position. When a client is having difficulty breathing, promoting optimal oxygenation is essential. Elevating the head of the bed improves ventilation and lung expansion by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. This position allows the lungs to expand fully, enhancing oxygen exchange. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there are secretions causing obstruction, but it is not the first intervention in this scenario. Administering a bronchodilator is appropriate for bronchoconstriction but does not address the immediate need for better ventilation. Increasing humidity can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but it is not the initial priority when a client is struggling to breathe.

3. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for a client that results in a blood spill on her gloved hand. The client has no documented bloodstream infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene
• B. Continue with the procedure and clean hands later
• C. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and start over
• D. Use hand sanitizer and continue the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene. This is important to prevent potential contamination and maintain infection control practices. Option B is incorrect because cleaning hands later may lead to the spread of potential contaminants. Option C is unnecessary as starting over is not required if proper hand hygiene is performed. Option D is not sufficient in ensuring proper hygiene after a blood spill, as hand sanitizer may not effectively remove all contaminants.

4. When teaching a client how to administer medication through a jejunostomy tube, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Flush the tube before and after each medication.
• B. Mix medications with enteral feeding.
• C. Push tablets through the tube slowly.
• D. Mix crushed medications before dissolving them in water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to flush the tube before and after each medication administration. This helps prevent clogging and ensures the medication is delivered properly. Mixing medications with enteral feeding (choice B) is incorrect as medications should be administered separately. Pushing tablets through the tube (choice C) is not recommended as they should be properly dissolved before administration. Mixing all crushed medications before dissolving them in water (choice D) is incorrect; medications should be dissolved individually to avoid interactions or inconsistencies in dosages.

5. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
• B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
• C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
• D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

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