Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the infusion rate
• C. Administer a bolus of fluid
• D. Replace the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

2. A nurse is developing an individualized plan of care for a patient. Which action is important for the nurse to take?

• A. Establish goals that are measurable and realistic.
• B. Set goals that are a little beyond the capabilities of the patient.
• C. Use the nurse's own judgment and not be swayed by family desires.
• D. Explain that without taking alignment risks, there can be no progress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When developing an individualized plan of care for a patient, the nurse must set goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of establishing goals that are measurable and realistic, ensuring they are attainable within a specific timeframe. Setting goals that are beyond the capabilities of the patient (Choice B) can lead to frustration and lack of progress. Using only the nurse's judgment and disregarding family desires (Choice C) may not consider important aspects of the patient's social support and preferences. Explaining that progress requires taking alignment risks (Choice D) is not a standard approach in nursing care planning and may confuse the patient or hinder trust in the nurse's decision-making.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

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