Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
• B. Decreased peripheral sensation
• C. Respiratory distress
• D. Muscle weakness in the arms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.

4. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

5. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
• B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
• C. Pale nail beds in both hands
• D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

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