HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
- B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
- C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.
2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an NG tube for a client admitted with bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the healthcare professional do first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client
- B. Measure the length of the NG tube
- C. Lubricate the NG tube
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Explaining the procedure to the client is the initial and most important step that the healthcare professional should take before inserting an NG tube. By explaining the procedure, the healthcare professional ensures the client's understanding, obtains informed consent, and fosters cooperation. Measuring the length of the NG tube, lubricating the tube, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are essential steps in the NG tube insertion process but should come after the client has been informed and consented to the procedure.
4. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?
- A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
- B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
- C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
- D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access