a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction mi is being treatewhich laboratory value would be most concerning
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HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

2. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

3. While bathing a patient, the nurse notices movement in the patient's hair. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse suspects pediculosis capitis (head lice) upon noticing movement in the patient's hair, the correct action is to use gloves to inspect the hair. This protects the nurse from potential self-infestations. Applying a lindane-based shampoo immediately (Choice B) is not the first action, as diagnosis and confirmation are necessary before treatment. Shaving the patient's hair off (Choice C) is an extreme measure and is unnecessary at this stage. Ignoring the movement and continuing (Choice D) is negligent and can lead to the spread of infestation.

4. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

5. A nurse is evaluating teaching about nutrition with the guardians of an 11-year-old child. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rewarding school achievements with a point system rather than food items like pizza or ice cream is a healthier approach. This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching about nutrition and the importance of not using food as a reward. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate a clear understanding of the teaching as they focus on concerns about overeating, skipping meals, and limiting fast-food consumption but do not address the concept of avoiding food rewards for achievements.

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