HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
- B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
- C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.
2. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?
- A. Dry gauze dressing
- B. Wet-to-dry dressing
- C. Transparent film dressing
- D. Hydrocolloid dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.
4. A charge nurse is talking with a newly licensed nurse and is reviewing nursing interventions that do not require a provider’s prescription. Which of the following interventions should the charge nurse include?
- A. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate as needed for pain
- B. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube to relieve gastric distention
- C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation
- D. Performing a daily bath after the evening meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation is an intervention that does not require a provider's prescription. This falls within the nurse's scope of practice and can be implemented to promote relaxation and reduce stress for the client. Choices A and B involve tasks that require a provider's prescription and specialized training. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate and inserting an NG tube should only be done by authorized healthcare providers. Choice D, performing a daily bath, while within the nurse's scope, does not specifically address interventions that do not require a provider's prescription.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
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