HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
- B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
- C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.
2. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating large meals before bedtime.
- B. I will limit coffee consumption to the morning hours.
- C. I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.
- D. I will avoid spicy and acidic foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.
3. To use the nursing process correctly, what must the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain information about the client
- B. Develop a care plan
- C. Implement interventions
- D. Evaluate the client's outcomes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first step in the nursing process is to obtain information about the client. This step involves gathering data through assessment to understand the client's needs, health status, and preferences. Developing a care plan (Choice B) comes after the assessment phase. Implementing interventions (Choice C) and evaluating client outcomes (Choice D) occur in subsequent stages of the nursing process. Therefore, the correct initial step is to gather information about the client to form a foundation for providing individualized care.
4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?
- A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
- B. A client who has heart failure
- C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. A client who has abdominal ascites
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.
5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access