HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
- B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
- C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.
2. A client has a new cast on the left arm, and the nurse is assessing the client. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Increased warmth in the affected arm
- B. Itching under the cast
- C. Pain with passive movement
- D. Drainage on the cast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain with passive movement. Pain with passive movement in a client with a new cast can indicate compartment syndrome, a serious condition where pressure builds up within the muscles, nerves, and blood vessels of the affected limb, potentially leading to tissue damage. Immediate reporting is crucial to prevent further complications. Increased warmth in the affected arm could be a normal inflammatory response to the injury and casting process. Itching under the cast is common and can be managed without immediate concern. Drainage on the cast may be expected initially after casting due to residual moisture from the setting process, but ongoing or excessive drainage should be monitored and reported if persistent.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Wheezing
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Cough with sputum production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare professional to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Dorsogluteal site
- D. Rectus femoris site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle, while commonly used for vaccinations, may not be suitable for certain medications due to its smaller muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve, which can lead to complications. The rectus femoris site is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in clinical practice.
5. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?
- A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
- B. Note which actions were not implemented.
- C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
- D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access