HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A client has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
- B. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
- C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
- D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. Kinks in the tubing can lead to urine retention or obstruction, increasing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary if there are no signs of infection or other issues. Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is important for hygiene but not the most critical action to prevent infection related to the catheter. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a routine practice and may increase the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary system.
2. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
4. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.
5. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
- B. Check the urine for color and texture
- C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
- D. Discard the contents of the urinal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.
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