HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. To minimize the side effects of vincristine (Oncovin) that a client is receiving, what does the LPN/LVN expect the dietary plan to include?
- A. Low in fat
- B. High in iron
- C. High in fluids
- D. Low in residue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to include a diet high in fluids to help minimize the side effects of vincristine. High fluid intake is important in managing potential side effects such as constipation, which is a common issue associated with vincristine therapy. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. A diet low in fat or high in iron is not specifically indicated for managing vincristine side effects. Additionally, a diet low in residue is not directly related to addressing vincristine side effects.
2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
- C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
- D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.
3. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
4. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?
- A. A 16-year-old client who is married
- B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
- C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
- D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.
5. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?
- A. 4-5 times per hour
- B. 2-3 times per hour
- C. 6-7 times per hour
- D. 8-10 times per hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access