Nursing Elites

1. To minimize the side effects of vincristine (Oncovin) that a client is receiving, what does the LPN/LVN expect the dietary plan to include?

• A. Low in fat
• B. High in iron
• C. High in fluids
• D. Low in residue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to include a diet high in fluids to help minimize the side effects of vincristine. High fluid intake is important in managing potential side effects such as constipation, which is a common issue associated with vincristine therapy. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. A diet low in fat or high in iron is not specifically indicated for managing vincristine side effects. Additionally, a diet low in residue is not directly related to addressing vincristine side effects.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to inject heparin subcutaneously for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle.
• B. Select a site on the client’s abdomen.
• C. Use the Z-track technique to displace the skin on the injection site.
• D. Observe for bleb formation to confirm proper placement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For subcutaneous injections like heparin, a 25-27 gauge needle is recommended, making choice A incorrect. The abdomen is a commonly used site for heparin injection due to its consistent absorption and convenience, making choice B the correct answer. The Z-track technique is not necessary for subcutaneous injections, making choice C unnecessary. Observing for bleb formation is not a standard practice for confirming proper placement of subcutaneous heparin, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct action is to select a site on the client's abdomen for the injection.

3. A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?

• A. Allergic reaction
• B. Ringworm
• C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.

4. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
• C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
• B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
• D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.

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