HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. To minimize the side effects of vincristine (Oncovin) that a client is receiving, what does the LPN/LVN expect the dietary plan to include?
- A. Low in fat
- B. High in iron
- C. High in fluids
- D. Low in residue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to include a diet high in fluids to help minimize the side effects of vincristine. High fluid intake is important in managing potential side effects such as constipation, which is a common issue associated with vincristine therapy. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. A diet low in fat or high in iron is not specifically indicated for managing vincristine side effects. Additionally, a diet low in residue is not directly related to addressing vincristine side effects.
2. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
3. When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?
- A. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear.
- B. Pull the ear lobe up and back.
- C. Insert the medication deeply into the ear canal.
- D. Massage the ear gently after administering the medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear. The tragus is the small pointed eminence of the external ear, and pressing on it helps direct the medication deeper into the ear canal. Pulling the ear lobe up and back (Choice B) is the correct technique for administering eardrops to a child, not an adult. Inserting the medication deeply into the ear canal (Choice C) can cause injury or discomfort as the eardrops are designed to flow into the ear canal naturally. Massaging the ear gently after administering the medication (Choice D) is unnecessary and may not help the medication reach the inner ear effectively.
4. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
- A. Feet
- B. Nail beds
- C. Perineum
- D. Oral cavity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.
5. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
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