Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing technique?

• A. The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows.
• B. The nurse uses an alcohol-based hand rub for 30 seconds.
• C. The nurse scrubs hands and forearms for 2 minutes with soap and water.
• D. The nurse washes her hands with soap and water for only 15 seconds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves washing with the hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning is essential to ensure proper rinsing and to prevent the risk of contamination. Option B, using an alcohol-based hand rub for 30 seconds, is not specific to surgical hand-washing and is more commonly used for routine hand hygiene. Option C, scrubbing hands and forearms for 2 minutes with soap and water, is excessive and not typically required for routine hand-washing. Option D, washing hands with soap and water for only 15 seconds, is insufficient for thorough surgical hand-washing.

2. A client with a terminal illness and approaching death has noisy respirations and is short of breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Administer an opioid medication
• C. Perform oral suctioning
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the client's bed is the most appropriate action in this situation. It helps reduce noisy respirations and improves comfort for clients with terminal illnesses by facilitating better air exchange. Administering an opioid medication may not address the immediate issue of noisy respirations and shortness of breath caused by secretions in the airway. Performing oral suctioning without proper assessment and indication can be uncomfortable for the client and may not be necessary. Placing the client in a prone position can further compromise breathing and is not recommended for a client with respiratory distress.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an opioid medication to a client for pain management. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed without any additional monitoring.
• B. Monitor the client for respiratory depression.
• C. Administer the medication only when the client requests it.
• D. Ask another healthcare professional to verify the medication before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioid medications, it is crucial to monitor the client for respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of opioids. Monitoring for respiratory depression is a critical safety measure to ensure the client's well-being during opioid therapy. Option A is incorrect because additional monitoring, especially for respiratory depression, is necessary when giving opioids to prevent adverse effects. Option C is incorrect as administering the medication only upon client request may compromise effective pain management and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Option D is incorrect as medication verification by another healthcare professional is essential for safety but not directly related to monitoring the client for respiratory depression after opioid administration.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

5. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

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