Nursing Elites

1. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.

2. A client is being taught how to care for their tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
• B. Clean the tracheostomy site with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• C. Change the tracheostomy tube weekly.
• D. Apply ointment around the tracheostomy site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. Tracheostomy covers serve to protect the airway from environmental contaminants, reducing the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect because hydrogen peroxide can be irritating to the skin and is not recommended for cleaning the tracheostomy site. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes should not be routinely changed weekly unless there is a specific medical indication. Changing it without a need can introduce infection or damage the stoma. Choice D is incorrect as applying ointment around the tracheostomy site can lead to occlusion of the stoma and interfere with breathing.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

• A. PC for after meals
• B. QD for every day
• C. BID for twice a day
• D. PRN for as needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

4. An assistive personnel says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should report this to the supervisor
• B. It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress
• C. Diapers are the best solution
• D. The client’s condition is not your concern

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

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