HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?
- A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
- B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
- C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
- D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.
2. What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
- B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
- C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
- D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.
3. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.
4. A healthcare professional is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following should the healthcare professional plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
- A. 8 oz of ice chips
- B. 8 oz of ice chips
- C. 1 cup of broth
- D. 1 cup of broth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A, '8 oz of ice chips,' is the correct answer. 8 oz is equivalent to approximately 240 mL, and since 1 oz is roughly equal to 30 mL, 8 oz would be approximately 240 mL. Since the question specifies 120 mL of fluid, this option does not match. Choices C and D, '1 cup of broth,' do not equate to 120 mL. A standard cup is approximately 240 mL, which is double the amount mentioned in the question. Therefore, choice A is the most accurate representation of 120 mL of fluid intake.
5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
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