Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?

• A. Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals
• B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
• D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is a good first step to understand eating habits before making any dietary or activity changes.

2. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

3. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the health care provider as soon as possible?

• A. Daily black, sticky stool
• B. Daily dark brown stool
• C. Firm brown stool every other day
• D. Soft light brown stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily black, sticky stool. Black sticky stool (melena) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and should be reported to the health care provider promptly. This finding indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool. Choices B, C, and D describe variations of normal stool color and consistency, which do not raise immediate concerns related to gastrointestinal bleeding.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?

• A. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolyte levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.

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