Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the correct use of a fire extinguisher with a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse direct the client to take first?

• A. Remove the safety pin from the extinguisher.
• B. Aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire.
• C. Squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent.
• D. Sweep the extinguisher from side to side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step in using a fire extinguisher is to remove the safety pin. This action enables the extinguisher to be activated and used effectively. Choice B, aiming the extinguisher at the base of the fire, comes after removing the safety pin. Choice C, squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and choice D, sweeping the extinguisher from side to side, are subsequent steps in using a fire extinguisher and should follow removing the safety pin.

2. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

3. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

4. What action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a postoperative client with a history of poor nutritional intake who needs care for wound healing?

• A. Provide a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake to 50% of daily calories.
• C. Administer high-dose vitamin supplements.
• D. Ensure a daily intake of 1000 calories.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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