Nursing Elites

1. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

2. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Communicating the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario. Reporting to the charge nurse follows proper protocol and ensures privacy compliance. This option allows for addressing the issue internally within the healthcare setting, maintaining confidentiality, and following the chain of command. Sending an email to facility administration (Choice B) might be premature without internal investigation and could potentially bypass the immediate supervisor who is responsible for addressing such issues. Writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website (Choice C) and posting a comment about the action on a staff discussion board (Choice D) are not professional or effective ways to address the situation, as they do not ensure proper handling of the breach of privacy within the organization.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident has persistent problems with dysphagia. The nurse caring for the client should initiate a referral with which of the following members of the interprofessional care team?

• A. Social worker
• B. Certified nursing assistant
• C. Occupational therapist
• D. Speech-language pathologist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Speech-language pathologist. Speech-language pathologists specialize in assessing and treating dysphagia, which is a common issue following a cerebrovascular accident. They are trained to evaluate swallowing function and provide appropriate interventions to help clients improve their ability to swallow safely. Choice A, Social worker, is incorrect as their role does not typically involve addressing dysphagia specifically. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is not the appropriate professional to address dysphagia concerns as they do not have the training or scope of practice for this specialized area. Choice C, Occupational therapist, focuses more on activities of daily living and functional abilities rather than the specialized treatment of dysphagia.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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