Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 0.5 tablet
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum amylase of 200 U/L
• B. Serum lipase of 250 U/L
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium of 7.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) is a critical finding that is associated with a poor prognosis and requires immediate attention. Serum amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation, but they are not indicators of severity. Blood glucose levels may be elevated due to stress or underlying conditions but are not directly related to the severity of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, the most concerning value in this scenario is the low serum calcium level, which can have significant implications for the client's prognosis.

4. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

5. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

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