Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:

• A. Low
• B. High
• C. Inaccurate
• D. Unaffected

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.

3. When evaluating a client's use of a cane, which action should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

• A. The client's stronger side holds the cane
• B. The top of the cane is parallel to the client's waist
• C. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of their body
• D. The client moves the cane 46 cm (18 in) forward

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This helps to provide support and maintain alignment. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, not the weaker side. Option B is incorrect as the top of the cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter, not the waist. Option D is incorrect because the client should move the weaker limb forward with the cane for stability.

4. A client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery needs care. Which task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Teach deep breathing and coughing to the client.
• B. Assist the client to select food choices from the menu.
• C. Evaluate the client’s response to pain medication.
• D. Monitor the characteristics of the client's chest tube drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the client with food choices is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel. This task does not require nursing judgment or specialized skills. Choices A, C, and D involve assessing the client's condition, response to treatment, and monitoring critical aspects of care, which are nursing responsibilities that necessitate specialized knowledge and judgment. Teaching deep breathing and coughing (A), evaluating pain medication response (C), and monitoring chest tube drainage (D) require a higher level of training and expertise that should be performed by the nurse.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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