HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Verify tube placement every shift.
- D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
2. A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?
- A. “I will place the client on their side.”
- B. “I will go to the nurses’ station for assistance.”
- C. “I will note the time that the seizure begins.”
- D. “I will prepare to insert an airway.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses’ station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.
3. While documenting in a client’s medical record, which of the following entries should the nurse record?
- A. “Incision without redness or drainage”
- B. “Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals”
- C. “Administered pain medication”
- D. “Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting specific observations, such as an oral temperature being slightly elevated at a specific time, is crucial for monitoring the client's health status accurately. This type of information helps in assessing trends and changes in the client's condition over time. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specificity and does not provide measurable data about the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect because it is a general statement related to client behavior rather than a specific health observation. Choice C is incorrect as it reflects an action taken by the nurse and not a direct client's condition or observation.
4. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
- B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
- C. Pale nail beds in both hands
- D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.
5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?
- A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
- B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
- C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
- D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.
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