Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. An adult client is found to be unresponsive during morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Check the carotid pulse
• B. Deliver 5 abdominal thrusts
• C. Give 2 rescue breaths
• D. Open the client's airway

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After confirming unresponsiveness and calling for help, the next step in basic life support is to open the client's airway. This ensures that the airway is clear and allows for effective ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse is not necessary at this stage as airway management takes precedence. Delivering abdominal thrusts is not indicated for an unresponsive client as it is for conscious choking individuals. Giving rescue breaths should only be done after ensuring the airway is open to allow for effective ventilation.

3. When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?

• A. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear.
• B. Pull the ear lobe up and back.
• C. Insert the medication deeply into the ear canal.
• D. Massage the ear gently after administering the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear. The tragus is the small pointed eminence of the external ear, and pressing on it helps direct the medication deeper into the ear canal. Pulling the ear lobe up and back (Choice B) is the correct technique for administering eardrops to a child, not an adult. Inserting the medication deeply into the ear canal (Choice C) can cause injury or discomfort as the eardrops are designed to flow into the ear canal naturally. Massaging the ear gently after administering the medication (Choice D) is unnecessary and may not help the medication reach the inner ear effectively.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client's ability to balance. Which of the following actions is appropriate when the healthcare provider conducts a Romberg test?

• A. Ask the client to extend their arms in front of their body.
• B. Ask the client to walk in a straight line heel to toe.
• C. Have the client stand with their feet together.
• D. Have the client place their hands on their hips.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Romberg test is a neurological test that assesses proprioception and balance. To perform this test, the client is asked to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides while closing their eyes. By removing visual input, the test challenges the vestibular and proprioceptive systems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the proper procedure for conducting the Romberg test. Extending arms in front, walking heel to toe, or placing hands on hips are not part of the Romberg test protocol and may introduce variables that could affect the assessment of balance.

5. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

• A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
• B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
• C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
• D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

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