Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. While caring for an older adult client who is violent and attempting to disconnect her IV lines, the provider prescribes soft wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take while the client is in restraints?

• A. Remove the restraints one at a time
• B. Secure the restraints tightly to prevent movement
• C. Check the restraints every hour
• D. Use leather restraints for additional security

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing restraints one at a time is the correct action to take when caring for a client in soft wrist restraints. This approach ensures safety and comfort while still maintaining the necessary restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as securing the restraints tightly can lead to circulatory issues and discomfort. Choice C of checking the restraints every hour is a reasonable action, but it is not the priority when compared to the correct choice of removing the restraints one at a time. Choice D of using leather restraints for additional security is unnecessary and may be more restrictive and uncomfortable for the client.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.

5. A nurse is counseling an older adult who describes having difficulty with several issues. Which of the following problems verbalized by the client should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. “I spent my whole life dreaming about retirement, and now I wish I had my job back.”
• B. “It’s been so stressful for me to have to depend on my child to help around the house.”
• C. “I just heard my friend Al die. That’s the third one in 3 months.”
• D. “I keep forgetting which medications I have taken during the day.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement expressing the loss of friends is the priority issue as it indicates potential grief and emotional distress. Losing multiple friends within a short period can have a profound impact on an older adult's emotional well-being. Option A expresses regret but does not indicate an immediate emotional crisis. Option B focuses on stress related to dependence, which is important but not as urgent as coping with loss. Option D highlights a memory concern, which is significant but does not address the emotional impact of loss.

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