during the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client that he is an agnostiwhat is the best nursing action in response to this statement
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HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing action in response to a terminally ill client stating their agnostic beliefs is to document the client's spiritual assessment. By documenting this information, the healthcare team can ensure that the client's beliefs are acknowledged and respected in their care plan. Providing information about the chapel's hours or inviting the client to a healing service may not align with the client's beliefs and preferences. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor of the client's choice may not be necessary if the client has clearly stated their agnostic beliefs, as they may not wish to engage in spiritual counseling.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult's psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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