HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
2. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
3. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
- B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.
4. A client has a new prescription for a home oxygen concentrator. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and their family?
- A. Check the cord routinely for frays or tearing
- B. Use oxygen around open flames
- C. Store oxygen concentrator in a closet
- D. Wear synthetic clothing to prevent static electricity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client and their family to check the cord routinely for frays or tearing. This is crucial to ensure the safety and proper function of the oxygen concentrator. Choice B is incorrect because oxygen should never be used around open flames due to the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as oxygen cylinders or concentrators should not be stored in a closet due to ventilation and safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect because synthetic clothing can generate static electricity, which could pose a risk around oxygen equipment.
5. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?
- A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
- B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
- C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
- D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.
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