Nursing Elites

1. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
• C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
• D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

3. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
• B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
• C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
• D. Use a less painful dressing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning?

• A. Morning stiffness
• B. Joint deformities
• C. Fever
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of fever is most concerning because it may indicate an infection or systemic involvement, necessitating immediate attention. Morning stiffness and joint deformities are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and are expected findings in these clients. Weight loss can occur in rheumatoid arthritis due to various factors such as decreased appetite or systemic inflammation, but it is not as acutely concerning as fever, which may signal a more urgent issue.

5. During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?

• A. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses.
• B. Ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations.
• C. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities.
• D. Determining the safety of medications for administration to clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

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