Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Administer the medication with the needle at a 30-degree angle.
• D. Administer the medication with the needle at a 15-degree angle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.

2. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

3. During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Murmur
• C. S1 and S2
• D. Bruit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.

4. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

5. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

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