Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Administer the medication with the needle at a 30-degree angle.
• D. Administer the medication with the needle at a 15-degree angle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.

2. A client has Clostridium difficile and is in contact isolation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wear gloves when changing the client's gown.
• B. Use hand sanitizer after contact with the client.
• C. Wear a mask when entering the client's room.
• D. Clean the room with a disinfectant spray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile in contact isolation is to wear gloves when changing the client's gown. Clostridium difficile is highly transmissible, and wearing gloves helps prevent the spread of the infection. Using hand sanitizer after contact with the client (Choice B) is not enough to prevent the transmission of C. difficile, as the spores can persist and spread. Wearing a mask when entering the client's room (Choice C) is not necessary for C. difficile transmission, which primarily occurs through contact with contaminated surfaces. Cleaning the room with a disinfectant spray (Choice D) is important, but wearing gloves during direct care is the priority to prevent the nurse from acquiring and spreading the infection.

3. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

4. The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?

• A. Directly address the child instead of the mother.
• B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child.
• C. Request another nurse to interview the mother now.
• D. Politely ask the mother to look at you when answering.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

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