HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about how to care for corns and calluses on her toes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can place an oval corn pad over toes that have corns as long as I remove the pad weekly
- B. I should soak my feet in warm water daily to soften corns and calluses
- C. I can apply lotion to soften calluses as long as I don’t put lotion between my toes
- D. I should use an over the counter liquid medication to remove corns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying lotion to the feet, avoiding between toes, is correct; over-the-counter treatments and soaking are not recommended.
2. The patient diagnosed with diabetes is reporting severe foot pain due to corns and has been using oval corn pads to self-treat the corns. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
- A. Corn pads are an adequate treatment and should be continued.
- B. The patient should avoid soaking the feet before using a pumice stone.
- C. The current self-treatment is likely impeding circulation to the toes.
- D. Tighter shoes would help compress the corns and make them smaller.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the patient that using oval corn pads can increase pressure on the toes and impede circulation, which may exacerbate foot problems in patients with diabetes. It is important to avoid practices that restrict blood flow to the feet, as poor circulation can lead to serious complications. Soaking the feet and using a pumice stone can be beneficial for corns, but in this case, the current self-treatment with corn pads is not recommended. Tighter shoes would further increase pressure on the corns and should be avoided. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize the importance of proper foot care and recommend alternative treatments to promote foot health and prevent complications.
3. A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Alert the American Nurses Association.
- B. Fill out an incident report.
- C. Report the observations to the nurse manager on the unit.
- D. Leave the nurse alone to sleep.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
5. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access